Brilliant 212-89 Exam Dumps Get 212-89 Dumps PDF
212-89 Dumps PDF - 212-89 Real Exam Questions Answers
Career Path
If you want to pursue your career beyond the EC-Council ECIH certification, there are many paths that you can choose from. First of all, you can become a Licensed Security Consultant. In this case, you can opt for the EC-Council Licensed Penetration Tester (LPT) certificate. Alternatively, you can go for the trainer path. Then you should apply for the Certified EC-Council Instructor (CEI) program.
If your goal is to become a multidisciplinary expert, earning the Computer Hacking Forensics Investigator (CHFI) or Certified Application Security Engineer (CASE) certifications will be an ideal choice for you. Finally, you can consider attaining a master’s cybersecurity degree. For this purpose, go for the EC-Council University Master of Security Sciences (MSS) program. By obtaining the ECIH certificate, you have already automatically earned 3 credits for this degree.
What Is 212-89 Exam?
The questions in the official 212-89 are presented in the form of multiple-choices. Also, there are a total of 100 questions that the applicant needs to finish within 3 hours. You require at least 70% of the score to pass such an exam. In addition, you must have a minimum of 1 year of working experience in the information security domain. To register for the final exam, the candidates have to pay $450 as an eligibility fee. In all, this test is a great way for specialists to demonstrate their skills and knowledge used for appropriate incident handling.
Exam Overview
EC-Council 212-89 is a 3-hour test consisting of 100 questions. The potential candidates must understand the details of different topics covered in the exam before attempting it. The highlights of the scope of the domains that should be studied during your preparation are enumerated below:
- Incident Handling & Response: This topic focuses on information security, threat intelligence, computer security, security policies, incident handling, and risk management. It makes up 16% of the exam content;
- Insider Threats: Here, you need to have the skills in insider threats, employee monitoring tools, detecting & preventing insider threats, and eradication. It covers 7% of the entire content;
- First Response & Forensic Readiness: This section focuses on 13% of the exam content and covers the areas, such as computer forensic, volatile evidence, anti-forensics, static evidence, digital evidence, preservation of electronic evidence, and forensic readiness;
- Network & Mobile Incidents: This module focuses on 16% of the exam content and covers the skill areas related to network attacks, eradication of mobile incidents and recovery, denial-of-service, mobile platform risks & vulnerabilities, wireless network, inappropriate usage, and unauthorized access;
- Process Handling: This area covers 14% of the exam questions and focuses on incident handling & response, security auditing, incident readiness, eradication & recovery, forensic investigation, and security incidents;
- Malware Incidents: This subject area makes up 8% of the exam questions and focuses on malicious code, malware incident triage, and malware;
- Email Security Incidents: The next domain covers one’s skills in different areas, including phishing email, email incidents, deceptive & suspicious email, and email security. It comes with 10% of the exam questions;
NEW QUESTION 96
Which of the following is an attack that attempts to prevent the use of systems, networks, or applications by the intended users?
- A. Fraud and theft
- B. Malicious code or insider threat attack
- C. Unauthorized access
- D. Denial of service (DoS) attack
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 97
US-CERT and Federal civilian agencies use the reporting timeframe criteria in the federal agency reporting categorization. What is the timeframe required to report an incident under the CAT 4 Federal Agency category?
- A. Within two (2) hours of discovery/detection
- B. Monthly
- C. Weekly
- D. Within four (4) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing and agency is unable to successfully mitigate activity
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 98
Incident handling and response steps help you to detect, identify, respond and manage an incident. Which of the following helps in recognizing and separating the infected hosts from the information system?
- A. Inspecting the process running on the system
- B. Browsing particular government websites
- C. Configuring firewall to default settings
- D. Sending mails to only group of friends
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 99
Which test is conducted to determine the incident recovery procedures effectiveness?
- A. Department-level test
- B. Scenario testing
- C. Live walk-throughs of procedures
- D. Facility-level test
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 100
Which of the following is not a countermeasure to eradicate cloud security incidents?
- A. Disabling security options such as two factor authentication and CAPTCHA
- B. Removing the malware files and traces from the affected components
- C. Patching the database vulnerabilities and improving the isolation mechanism
- D. Checking for data protection at both design and runtime
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 101
Otis is an incident handler working in the Delmont organization. Recently, the organization is facing several setbacks in the business and thereby its revenues are going down. Otis was asked to take charge and look into the matter. While auditing the enterprise security, he found the traces of an attack where proprietary information was stolen from the enterprise network and was passed on to their competitors.
Which of the following information security incidents did the Delmont organization face?
- A. Network and resource abuses
- B. Email-based abuse
- C. Espionage
- D. Unauthorized access
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 102
Which of the following types of insider threats involves an insider who is uneducated on potential security threats or simply bypasses general security procedures to meet workplace efficiency?
- A. Professional insider
- B. Malicious insider
- C. Compromised insider
- D. Negligent insider
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 103
Jason is setting up a computer forensics lab and must perform the following steps:
1. physical location and structural design considerations;
2. planning and budgeting;
3. work area considerations;
4. physical security recommendations;
5. forensic lab licensing;
6. human resource considerations.
Arrange these steps in the order of execution.
- A. 2->1->3->6->4->5
- B. 3->2->1->4->6->5
- C. 2->3->1->4->6->5
- D. 5->2->1->3->4->6
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 104
Drake is an incident handler at Dark Cloud Inc. He is tasked with performing log analysis to detect traces of malicious activities within the network infrastructure.
Which of the following tools should Drake employ to view logs in real time and identify malware propagation within the network?
- A. Hydra
- B. Splunk
- C. LOIC
- D. HULK
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 105
Which of the following is not called volatile data?
- A. Creation dates off les
- B. Open sockets or open ports
- C. The date and time of the system
- D. State of the network interface
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 106
Francis is an incident handler and security expert. He works at Morison Tech Solutions based in Sydney, Australia. He was assigned a task to detect phishing/spam mails for the client organization.
Which of the following tools can assist Francis to perform the required task?
- A. Nessus
- B. BT Crack
- C. Netcraft
- D. Cain and Abel
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 107
The policy that defines which set of events needs to be logged in order to capture and review the important
data in a timely manner is known as:
- A. Documentation policy
- B. Audit trail policy
- C. Logging policy
- D. Evidence Collection policy
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 108
A risk mitigation strategy determines the circumstances under which an action has to be taken to minimize and overcome risks. Identify the risk mitigation strategy that focuses on minimizing the probability of risk and losses by searching for vulnerabilities in the system and appropriate controls:
- A. Research and acknowledgment
- B. Risk limitation
- C. Risk Assumption
- D. Risk absorption
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 109
Which of the following incident recovery testing methods works by creating a mock disaster, like fire to identify the reaction of the procedures that are implemented to handle such situations?
- A. Scenario testing
- B. Facility testing
- C. Procedure testing
- D. Live walk-through testing
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 110
You area systems administrator for a company. You are accessing your fileserver remotely for maintenance.
Suddenly, you are unable to access the server. After contacting others in your department, you find out that they cannot access the file server either.
You can ping the file server but not connect to it via RD. You check the Active Directory Server, and all is well.
You check the email server and find that emails are sent and received normally.
What is the most likely issue?
- A. An email service issue
- B. The fileserver has shutdown
- C. An admin account issue
- D. A denial-of-service issue
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 111
What is correct about Quantitative Risk Analysis:
- A. Better than Qualitative Risk Analysis
- B. It is Subjective but faster than Qualitative Risk Analysis
- C. Uses levels and descriptive expressions
- D. Easily automated
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 112
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