[May-2025] Verified ISACA CISM Bundle Real Exam Dumps PDF
CISM Dumps PDF New [2025] Ultimate Study Guide
NEW QUESTION # 222
In order to highlight to management the importance of network security, the security manager should FIRST:
- A. develop a security architecture.
- B. conduct a risk assessment.
- C. install a network intrusion detection system (NIDS) and prepare a list of attacks.
- D. develop a network security policy.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A risk assessment would be most helpful to management in understanding at a very high level the threats, probabilities and existing controls. Developing a security architecture, installing a network intrusion detection system (NIDS) and preparing a list of attacks on the network and developing a network security policy would not be as effective in highlighting the importance to management and would follow only after performing a risk assessment.
NEW QUESTION # 223
Which of the following would be MOST relevant to include in a cost-benefit analysis of a two-factor authentication system?
- A. Annual loss expectancy (ALE) of incidents
- B. Frequency of incidents
- C. Approved budget for the project
- D. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION RISK MANAGEMENT
Explanation:
The total cost of ownership (TCO) would be the most relevant piece of information in that it would establish a cost baseline and it must be considered for the full life cycle of the control. Annual loss expectancy (ALE) and the frequency of incidents could help measure the benefit, but would have more of an indirect relationship as not all incidents may be mitigated by implementing a two-factor authentication system. The approved budget for the project may have no bearing on what the project may actually cost.
NEW QUESTION # 224
A post-incident review should be conducted by an incident management team to determine:
- A. lessons learned.
- B. relevant electronic evidence.
- C. areas affected.
- D. hacker's identity.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Post-incident reviews are beneficial in determining ways to improve the response process through lessons learned from the attack. Evaluating the relevance of evidence, who launched the attack or what areas were affected are not the primary purposes for such a meeting because these should have been already established during the response to the incident.
NEW QUESTION # 225
When the computer incident response team (CIRT) finds clear evidence that a hacker has penetrated the corporate network and modified customer information, an information security manager should FIRST notify:
- A. regulatory- agencies overseeing privacy.
- B. the information security steering committee.
- C. customers who may be impacted.
- D. data owners who may be impacted.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The data owners should be notified first so they can take steps to determine the extent of the damage and coordinate a plan for corrective action with the computer incident response team. Other parties will be notified later as required by corporate policy and regulatory requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 226
After completing a full IT risk assessment, who can BEST decide which mitigating controls should be implemented?
- A. Senior management
- B. IT audit manager
- C. Business manager
- D. Information security officer (ISO)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION RISK MANAGEMENT
Explanation:
The business manager will be in the best position, based on the risk assessment and mitigation proposals. to decide which controls should/could be implemented, in line with the business strategy and with budget. Senior management will have to ensure that the business manager has a clear understanding of the risk assessed but in no case will be in a position to decide on specific controls. The IT audit manager will take part in the process to identify threats and vulnerabilities, and to make recommendations for mitigations. The information security officer (ISO) could make some decisions regarding implementation of controls. However, the business manager will have a broader business view and full control over the budget and, therefore, will be in a better position to make strategic decisions.
NEW QUESTION # 227
To justify the need to invest in a forensic analysis tool, an information security manager should FIRST:
- A. review comparison reports of tool implementation in peer companies.
- B. substantiate the investment in meeting organizational needs.
- C. review the functionalities and implementation requirements of the solution.
- D. provide examples of situations where such a tool would be useful.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Any investment must be reviewed to determine whether it is cost effective and supports the organizational strategy. It is important to review the features and functionalities provided by such a tool, and to provide examples of situations where the tool would be useful, but that comes after substantiating the investment and return on investment to the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 228
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate frequency for updating antivirus signature files for antivirus software on production servers?
- A. Weekly
- B. Concurrently with O/S patch updates
- C. Daily
- D. During scheduled change control updates
Answer: C
Explanation:
New viruses are being introduced almost daily. The effectiveness of virus detection software depends on frequent updates to its virus signatures, which are stored on antivirus signature files so updates may be carried out several times during the day. At a minimum, daily updating should occur. Patches may occur less frequently. Weekly updates may potentially allow new viruses to infect the system.
NEW QUESTION # 229
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of testing a security incident response plan?
- A. Ensure the thoroughness of the response plan
- B. Confirm that systems are recovered in the proper order
- C. Verify the response assumptions are valid
- D. Validate the business impact analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: INCIDENT MANAGEMENT AND RESPONSE
NEW QUESTION # 230
Security monitoring mechanisms should PRIMARILY:
- A. record all security violations.
- B. focus on detecting network intrusions.
- C. focus on business-critical information.
- D. assist owners to manage control risks.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Security monitoring must focus on business-critical information to remain effectively usable by and credible to business users. Control risk is the possibility that controls would not detect an incident or error condition, and therefore is not a correct answer because monitoring would not directly assist in managing this risk. Network intrusions are not the only focus of monitoring mechanisms; although they should record all security violations, this is not the primary objective.
NEW QUESTION # 231
The MOST important reason for formally documenting security procedures is to ensure:
- A. processes are repeatable and sustainable.
- B. alignment with business objectives.
- C. auditability by regulatory agencies.
- D. objective criteria for the application of metrics.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Without formal documentation, it would be difficult to ensure that security processes are performed in the proper manner every time that they are performed. Alignment with business objectives is not a function of formally documenting security procedures. Processes should not be formally documented merely to satisfy an audit requirement. Although potentially useful in the development of metrics, creating formal documentation to assist in the creation of metrics is a secondary objective.
NEW QUESTION # 232
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of reporting security metrics to stakeholders?
- A. To provide support for security audit activities
- B. To identify key controls within the organization
- C. To demonstrate alignment to the business strategy
- D. To communicate the effectiveness of the security program
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 233
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the gap between the present and desired state of an information security program?
- A. Perform a risk analysis for critical applications.
- B. Conduct a capability maturity model evaluation.
- C. Determine whether critical success factors (CSFs) have been defined.
- D. Review and update current operational procedures.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A capability maturity model evaluation is the best way to determine the gap between the present and desired state of an information security program because it provides a systematic and structured approach to assess the current level of maturity of the information security processes and practices, and compare them with the desired or target level of maturity that is aligned with the business objectives and requirements. A capability maturity model evaluation can also help to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the information security program, prioritize the improvement areas, and develop a roadmap for achieving the desired state.
References = Information Security Architecture: Gap Assessment and Prioritization, CISM Review Manual
15th Edition
NEW QUESTION # 234
Which is MOST important to identify when developing an effective information security strategy?
- A. Compliance requirements
- B. Potential savings resulting from security governance
- C. Business assets to be secured
- D. Control gaps that require remediation
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 235
An organization's marketing department wants to use an online collaboration service, which is not in compliance with the information security policy, A risk assessment is performed, and risk acceptance is being pursued. Approval of risk acceptance should be provided by:
- A. the compliance officer.
- B. the chief risk officer (CRO).
- C. the information security manager.
- D. business senior management.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Risk acceptance is the decision to accept the level of residual risk after applying security controls, and to tolerate the potential impact and consequences of a security incident. Approval of risk acceptance should be provided by business senior management, as they are the owners and accountable parties of the business processes, activities, and assets that are exposed to the risk. Business senior management should also have the authority and responsibility to allocate the resources, personnel, and budget to implement and monitor the risk acceptance decision, and to report and escalate the risk acceptance status to the board of directors or the executive management.
The chief risk officer (CRO) (A) is a senior executive who oversees the organization's risk management function, and provides guidance, direction, and support for the identification, assessment, treatment, and monitoring of risks across the organization. The CRO may be involved in the risk acceptance process, such as by reviewing, endorsing, or advising the risk acceptance decision, but the CRO is not the ultimate approver of risk acceptance, as the CRO is not the owner or accountable party of the business processes, activities, and assets that are exposed to the risk.
The information security manager © is the manager who leads and coordinates the information security function, and provides guidance, direction, and support for the development, implementation, and maintenance of the information security program and activities. The information security manager may be involved in the risk acceptance process, such as by conducting the risk assessment, recommending the risk treatment options, or documenting the risk acceptance decision, but the information security manager is not the ultimate approver of risk acceptance, as the information security manager is not the owner or accountable party of the business processes, activities, and assets that are exposed to the risk.
The compliance officer (D) is the officer who oversees the organization's compliance function, and provides guidance, direction, and support for the identification, assessment, implementation, and monitoring of the compliance requirements and obligations across the organization. The compliance officer may be involved in the risk acceptance process, such as by verifying, validating, or advising the risk acceptance decision, but the compliance officer is not the ultimate approver of risk acceptance, as the compliance officer is not the owner or accountable party of the business processes, activities, and assets that are exposed to the risk.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Chapter 2: Information Risk Management, Section: Risk Treatment, Subsection: Risk Acceptance, page 95-961
NEW QUESTION # 236
Following a successful and well-publicized hacking incident, an organization alias plans to improve application security. Which of the following is a security project risk?
- A. A trapdoor may have been installed m the application.
- B. The reputation of the organization may be damaged
- C. Critical evidence may be lost.
- D. Resources may not be available to support the implementation.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 237
Which of the following helps to ensure that the appropriate resources are applied in a timely manner after an incident has occurred?
- A. Broadcast an emergency message.
- B. Classify the incident.
- C. Initiate an incident management log.
- D. Define incident response teams.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: INCIDENT MANAGEMENT AND RESPONSE
NEW QUESTION # 238
A successful risk management program should lead to:
- A. identification and removal of all man-made threats.
- B. elimination or transference of all organizational risks.
- C. containment of losses to an annual budgeted amount.
- D. optimization of risk reduction efforts against cost.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION RISK MANAGEMENT
Explanation:
Successful risk management should lead to a breakeven point of risk reduction and cost. The other options listed are not achievable. Threats cannot be totally removed or transferred, while losses cannot be budgeted in advance with absolute certainty.
NEW QUESTION # 239
Several months after the installation of a new firewall with intrusion prevention features to block malicious activity, a breach was discovered that came in through the firewall shortly after installation. This breach could have been detected earlier by implementing firewall:
- A. packet filtering
- B. log monitoring
- C. web surfing controls
- D. application awareness
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 240
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a newly implemented security awareness program has been effective?
- A. There has been an increase in the number of phishing attempts reported.
- B. Employees from each department have completed the required training.
- C. There have been no reported successful phishing attempts since the training started.
- D. Senior management supports funding for ongoing awareness training.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 241
An organization's quality process can BEST support security management by providing:
- A. a repository for security systems documentation.
- B. assurance that security requirements are met.
- C. security configuration controls.
- D. guidance for security strategy.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An organization's quality process can BEST support security management by providing assurance that security requirements are met. This means that the quality process can be used to ensure that security controls are being implemented as intended and that they are achieving the desired results. This helps to ensure that the organization is properly protected and that it is in compliance with security regulations and standards.
NEW QUESTION # 242
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The CISM certification is designed for professionals who are responsible for managing and implementing information security programs in organizations. It covers four domains of information security management: information security governance, risk management, information security program development and management, and incident management and response. CISM exam is comprehensive and covers a wide range of topics related to information security management, including security frameworks, risk assessment and management, security program development and implementation, and incident response and management.
There are many types of study materials offered by ISACA, which are available in English, Japanese, Spanish, and Chinese. You can find training videos and eBooks. Thus, you can go for the following guides that are available on Amazon to learn the exam topics:
- CISM Review Manual.
- CISM Certified Information Security Manager All-in-One Exam Guide 1st Edition by Peter H. Gregory;
The vendor also offers virtual instructor-led training, on-site courses, online review courses, and a lot of other resources. Attending an online course a week or two before the exam can also be beneficial. It is intended solely to prepare you for the test and the instructors may sometimes point to the topics you should pay attention to. After its completion, you will have the CISM Self-Assessment exam with 75 questions that will show you how much you are prepared for the actual test. If you have done this assessment well, then you do not have to be worried about the real exam. The online course covers all the objectives and offers you plenty of interactive workbooks, case study activities, and interactive modules.
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